CH1. UNDERSTANDING THE BASICS OF PSYCHOLOGY

1. Which of the following is an assumption of arousal theory?

A. Highest levels of arousal are the most desirable

B. Optimal level of arousal exists for each person

C. Zero level of arousal is the most desirable

D. Highest level of arousal exists for various activities

Answer: B

Explanation:
Arousal theory, rooted in psychology, states that there is an optimal arousal level for each individual that enhances performance. Too little arousal can lead to boredom, while too much can cause stress or diminished performance. This principle is supported by the Yerkes-Dodson Law, which shows that moderate arousal levels are ideal for complex tasks.

2. The DSM-5 classification system:

A. Used 3 axes for diagnosis of mental disorders

B. Abandoned the multiaxial system

C. Used 4 axes of diagnosis of mental disorders

D. Maintained the multiaxial system with modifications

Answer: B

Explanation:
The DSM-5, published in 2013 by the American Psychiatric Association, eliminated the multiaxial system used in previous editions (DSM-IV). Instead of using separate axes for clinical disorders, personality disorders, and other factors, the DSM-5 integrates all relevant information into a single diagnostic framework. This change simplifies diagnosis and emphasizes a more holistic approach to mental health evaluation.

3. Which of the following best describes classical conditioning?

A. Learning based on reinforcement and punishment

B. A neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus

C. Observational learning through modeling

D. Problem-solving through sudden insight

Answer: B

Explanation:
Classical conditioning, first described by Ivan Pavlov, involves pairing a neutral stimulus (NS) with an unconditioned stimulus (US) that naturally elicits a response. Over time, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS), producing a conditioned response (CR) even in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. For example, a bell (NS) paired with food (US) can eventually cause salivation (CR) in dogs.

4. Psychology is defined as the scientific study of:

A. Mind and behaviour

B. Brain and emotions

C. Mental illness

D. Personality development

Answer: A

Explanation:
Psychology is the scientific study of the mind and behavior, encompassing how individuals think, feel, and act. It relies on empirical research and observation to understand processes like perception, cognition, emotions, and actions. This definition is widely accepted in academic and scientific contexts, including by organizations such as the American Psychological Association (APA).

5. The term ‘cognitive dissonance’ refers to:

A. A mismatch between attitudes and behaviours

B. A state of mental alertness

C. The balance between motivation and arousal

D. The process of learning through trial and error

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cognitive dissonance, introduced by Leon Festinger, occurs when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, or values and their behaviors. This inconsistency creates psychological discomfort, motivating the individual to reduce the dissonance by changing their attitude, behavior, or perception of the situation.

6. The term introspection’ was used by early psychologists to refer to:

A. Observing one’s own conscious thoughts

B. Studying behaviour through experiments

C. Analyzing unconscious desires

D. Examining physiological responses

Answer: A

Explanation:
Introspection, widely used by early psychologists like Wilhelm Wundt, involved systematically examining and reporting one’s own conscious thoughts, feelings, and perceptions. This method aimed to understand the structure of the mind, forming the foundation of the structuralist approach in psychology.

7. Which perspective in psychology emphasizes the influence of unconscious forces?

A. Cognitive

B. Humanistic

C. Psychoanalytic

D. Behavioural

Answer: C

Explanation:
The psychoanalytic perspective, developed by Sigmund Freud, emphasizes the role of unconscious forces, such as desires, memories, and conflicts, in shaping behavior and personality. It highlights processes like the id, ego, and superego, and unresolved childhood experiences, which influence thoughts and actions.

8. Who is known as the founder of psychoanalysis?

A. Carl Jung

B. Sigmund Freud

C. B.F. Skinner

D. John Watson

Answer: B

Explanation:
Sigmund Freud is recognized as the founder of psychoanalysis, a psychological theory and therapeutic method that focuses on exploring the unconscious mind. Freud introduced key concepts such as the id, ego, and superego, defense mechanisms, and the role of early childhood experiences in personality development.

9. The concept of self-actualization is most closely associated with which psychologist?

A. Carl Rogers

B. B.F. Skinner

C. Abraham Maslow

D. Jean Piaget

Answer: C

Explanation:
The concept of self-actualization is a central idea in Abraham Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs. It represents the highest level of psychological development, where an individual realizes their full potential, seeks personal growth, creativity, and fulfillment. Maslow’s theory places self-actualization at the top of his five-tier model of human needs.

10. A researcher wants to examine the relationship between two continuous variables. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate?

A. Chi-square test

B. Pearson correlation

C. Independent sample t-test

D. Dependent sample t-test

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Pearson correlation coefficient is the most appropriate statistical test to examine the relationship between two continuous variables. It measures the strength and direction of the linear relationship between these variables, with values ranging from -1 to +1.

11. To compare the means of two independent groups, which statistical test is used?

A. Independent sample t-test

B. Dependent sample t-test

C. Chi-square test

D. ANOVA

Answer: A

Explanation:
The independent sample t-test is used to compare the means of two independent groups to determine if there is a statistically significant difference between them. It assumes that the two groups are independent of each other and normally distributed data.

12. Which statistical test is used when measuring the same group of participants at two different times?

A. Independent sample t-test

B. Dependent sample t-test

C. ANOVA

D. Pearson correlation

Answer: B

Explanation:
The dependent sample t-test (also known as the paired samples t-test) is used when the same group of participants is measured at two different times or under two different conditions. It assesses whether the mean difference between the two sets of observations is statistically significant.

13. A person experiences frequent panic attacks and avoids places where they fear a panic attack may occur. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Panic Disorder

B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

C. Agoraphobia

D. Social Anxiety Disorder

Answer: A

Explanation:
Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder characterized by the fear of being in places or situations where a panic attack might occur and where escape might be difficult or help may not be available. This leads to avoidance of crowded places, open spaces, or situations that trigger fear. It often develops following repeated panic attacks.

14. Rohit is excessively concerned about cleanliness and frequently washes his hands even when not necessary. What disorder does he suffer from?

A. Somatization Disorder

B. Conversion Disorder

C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

D. Hypochondriasis

Answer: C

Explanation:
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is characterized by obsessions (repeated, intrusive thoughts) and compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts). Rohit’s excessive concern about cleanliness and his frequent handwashing are compulsive behaviors driven by his fears or anxieties, a hallmark of OCD.

15. A person constantly worries about being evaluated negatively in social situations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Panic Disorder

B. Social Anxiety Disorder

C. Agoraphobia

D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Answer: B

Explanation:
Social Anxiety Disorder is characterized by an intense fear of being evaluated negatively in social situations, leading to significant anxiety and avoidance of such situations. This fear is typically centered on the concern of embarrassment, judgment, or scrutiny by others.

16. In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus by being paired repeatedly with a(n)

A. Conditioned response

B. Conditioned stimulus

C. Unconditioned stimulus

D. Operant response

Answer: C

Explanation:
In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus (NS) becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) by being repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). The unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response without prior learning, such as food triggering salivation.

17. The cognitive revolution in psychology is most closely associated with the study of

A. brain structure

B. mental processes

C. observable behaviour

D. emotional responses

Answer: B

Explanation:
The cognitive revolution in psychology, which emerged in the mid-20th century, shifted the focus from behaviorism to the study of mental processes such as thinking, memory, problem-solving, perception, and language. It emphasized understanding how people process, store, and retrieve information.

18. In operant conditioning,…………. increases the likelihood of a behaviour being repeated.

A Punishment

B. Reinforcement

C. Extinction

D. Modeling

Answer: B

Explanation:
In operant conditioning, reinforcement is used to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. It can be positive (adding a rewarding stimulus) or negative (removing an aversive stimulus) to strengthen a behavior. Punishment, on the other hand, decreases behavior.

19. The humanistic perspective in psychology emphasizes………

A. Unconscious drives

B. Observable behaviours

C. Free will and personal growth

D. Cognitive restructuring

Answer: C

Explanation:
The humanistic perspective in psychology emphasizes free will, personal growth, and the individual’s capacity for self-actualization. It focuses on the whole person, their unique experiences, and their potential to grow and achieve personal fulfillment, contrasting deterministic views like behaviorism or psychoanalysis. Key figures include Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers.

20. Down’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of an extra………. chromosome

A. X

B. 21

C. Y

D. 23

Answer: B

Explanation:
Down’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra 21st chromosome, resulting in trisomy 21. This extra genetic material leads to the physical and cognitive features associated with Down’s syndrome, such as developmental delays, characteristic facial features, and potential health issues.

21. Sigmund Freud proposed that the human psyche is composed of three parts: the id, ego, and………

A. unconscious

C. preconscious

B. superego

D. conscious

Answer: B

Explanation:
Sigmund Freud proposed that the human psyche is composed of three parts: the id, ego, and superego. The id represents primal desires, the ego represents reality and rationality, and the superego represents moral standards and societal rules. The interaction among these three shapes personality and behavior.

22. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs suggests that………… needs must be met before higher-level psychological needs.

A. safety

C. Esteem

B. Self-actualization

D. Physiological

Answer: D

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is a five-tier model of human motivation. According to this model, physiological needs (such as food, water, shelter, and sleep) must be satisfied first before individuals can focus on higher-level psychological needs, such as safety, belonging, esteem, and self-actualization.

23. In cognitive psychology,…………mental processes involved in acquiring, storing, and retrieving information.

A. Intelligence

B. Memory

C. Perception

D. Cognition

Answer: D

In cognitive psychology, cognition refers to the mental processes involved in acquiring, storing, processing, and retrieving information. It encompasses processes like attention, memory, problem-solving, language, and perception.

24. The neurotransmitter……….. associated with mood regulation and is implicated is primarily in depression.

A. Dopamine

B. Serotonin

C. Acetylcholine

D. GABA

Answer: B

Serotonin is a neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation. Low levels of serotonin are linked to mood disorders, particularly depression. Many antidepressant medications work by increasing serotonin levels in the brain.

25. The……… lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for processing visual information.

A. Frontal

B. Parietal

C. Occipital

D. Temporal

Answer: C

The occipital lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for processing visual information. It interprets signals from the eyes, allowing us to recognize shapes, colors, and motion.

26. Identify the common obsessions in Obsessive- Compulsive Disorder (OCD):

1. Contamination

2. Excessive checking

3. Hoarding

4. Unwanted sexual thoughts

Select the answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 3, 4

B. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

Answer: D

Common obsessions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) include:

1. Contamination – fear of germs or dirt.
2. Excessive checking – doubts about safety, such as whether doors are locked.
3. Unwanted sexual thoughts – intrusive and distressing thoughts.

Hoarding, while related to OCD, is not classified as a common obsession but rather a separate disorder called Hoarding Disorder.

27. Which of the following are components of Bandura’s observational learning theory?

1. Attention

3. Reproduction

2. Retention

4. Motivation

Select the answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 3, 4

B. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

Answer: D

Bandura’s Observational Learning Theory identifies four key components:

1. Attention – The individual must pay attention to the behavior being modeled.
2. Retention – The individual must remember the behavior being observed.
3. Reproduction – The individual must have the ability to reproduce or imitate the observed behavior.
4. Motivation – The individual must be motivated to perform the observed behavior.

Hoarding is not a standalone component but can influence the learning process if motivation is linked to rewards or consequences.

28. Which of the following are stages of cognitive development according to Piaget?

1. Sensorimotor

2. Preoperational

3. Concrete operational

4. Formal operational

Select the correct codes:

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 1, 3, 4

Answer: D

According to Jean Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development, the four stages are:

1. Sensorimotor Stage (0-2 years) – Infants learn through sensory experiences and movement.
2. Preoperational Stage (2-7 years) – Children use language and symbols but lack logical reasoning.
3. Concrete Operational Stage (7-11 years) – Children develop logical reasoning about concrete events but struggle with abstract ideas.
4. Formal Operational Stage (12 years and older) – Adolescents and adults develop abstract thinking and hypothetical reasoning.

The Preoperational Stage is omitted in answer choice D, as it’s vital for cognitive development.

29. Components of Freud’s psychosexual stages include:

1. Oral

2. Anal

3. Phallic

4. Latency

Select the answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 2, 4

B. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 3, 4

Answer: A

According to Freud’s Theory of Psychosexual Stages, the stages of development are:

1. Oral Stage (0-1 year) – Pleasure is derived from oral activities like sucking and biting.
2. Anal Stage (1-3 years) – Pleasure is focused on controlling bowel movements and toilet training.
3. Phallic Stage (3-6 years) – Children become aware of gender differences; concepts like Oedipus and Electra complex emerge.
4. Latency Stage (6-puberty) – Sexual feelings are dormant, and children focus on social development.

The Genital Stage (puberty onward) is the final stage but is not listed in the options. Hence, C. 1, 2, 4 is correct.

30. The following are defense mechanisms according to Freud:

1. Repression

3. Projection

2. Sublimation

4. Denial

Select the answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 3, 4

B. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

Answer: C

According to Freud’s Theory of Defense Mechanisms, the following are recognized as defense mechanisms:

1. Repression – Involves unconsciously pushing distressing thoughts and memories out of awareness.
2. Projection – Attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to others.
3. Denial – Refusing to accept reality or facts that are too uncomfortable.

Sublimation (option 2), although a defense mechanism, involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable behaviors and is not listed as commonly central to Freud’s original defense mechanisms. Therefore, C. 1, 3, 4 is correct.

31. Arrange the stages of classical conditioning in the correct sequence:

1. Unconditioned response

2. Neutral stimulus

3. Conditioned stimulus

4. Conditioned response

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 2, 3, 4, 1

B. 2, 1, 3, 4

D. 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: B

The stages of classical conditioning follow this sequence:

1. Neutral stimulus (2) – A stimulus that initially does not trigger any response.
2. Unconditioned response (1) – A natural, automatic response to an unconditioned stimulus.
3. Conditioned stimulus (3) – A previously neutral stimulus that, through association with the unconditioned stimulus, now triggers a response.
4. Conditioned response (4) – The learned response to the conditioned stimulus.

This sequence illustrates how a neutral stimulus becomes associated with a response through repeated pairings.

32. Arrange the stages of prenatal development in the correct sequence:

1. Zygote

3. Fetus

2. Embryo

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

A. 1, 2, 3

C. 3, 1, 2

B. 2, 3, 1

D. 1, 3, 2

Answer: A

The correct sequence of prenatal development stages is:

1. Zygote – The single-cell formed after the fertilization of the egg by the sperm.
2. Embryo – The stage following the zygote stage, from about the 2nd to the 8th week of pregnancy, during which major organs and body systems develop.
3. Fetus – The stage from the 9th week of pregnancy until birth, characterized by continued growth and development.

This sequence reflects the natural progression of prenatal stages from conception through birth.

33. Arrange the components of the scientific method in the correct sequence:

1. Hypothesis

2. Observation

3. Experimentation

4. Data analysis

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 1, 4, 2

B. 2, 1, 3, 4

D. 2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: B

The correct sequence of the scientific method is:

1. Observation (2) – Gathering information and identifying a problem or question.
2. Hypothesis (1) – Formulating a testable prediction based on observations.
3. Experimentation (3) – Conducting experiments to test the hypothesis under controlled conditions.
4. Data analysis (4) – Analyzing the results of the experiment to determine if the hypothesis is supported or refuted.

This sequence represents the logical steps in the scientific method, starting with observation and leading to conclusions through experimentation and data analysis.

34. Arrange the stages of Freud’s psychosexual development in the correct sequence:

1. Oral

3. Phallic

2. Anal

4. Latency

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 2, 1, 3, 4

C. 1. 3. 2, 4

D. 2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: A

According to Freud’s Psychosexual Development Theory, the stages are:

1. Oral Stage (0-1 year) – Pleasure is focused on the mouth (sucking, biting, and chewing).
2. Anal Stage (1-3 years) – Focus on control during toilet training; pleasure derived from controlling bowel movements.
3. Phallic Stage (3-6 years) – Awareness of gender differences; Oedipus/Electra complex develops.
4. Latency Stage (6 years to puberty) – Sexual feelings are dormant, and social and cognitive development occur.

This sequence follows the natural progression of Freud’s stages of psychosexual development.

35. Arrange the components of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development in the correct sequence:

1. Sensorimotor

2. Preoperational

3. Concrete operational

4. Formal operational

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

A. 2, 3, 1, 4

B. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 2, 4, 1

D. 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: B

According to Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development, the stages are:

1. Sensorimotor Stage (0-2 years) – Infants learn through sensory experiences and motor activities.
2. Preoperational Stage (2-7 years) – Children develop language and symbolic thinking but lack logical reasoning.
3. Concrete Operational Stage (7-11 years) – Logical reasoning develops, but it is limited to concrete events and experiences.
4. Formal Operational Stage (12 years and older) – Abstract thinking and hypothetical reasoning emerge.

This sequence represents the natural progression of cognitive development from infancy through adolescence.

36. Match List-I (Learning Theories) with List-II (Key Concepts):

List-I:

(a) Classical Conditioning

(b) Operant Conditioning

(c) Social Learning Theory

(d) Cognitive Learning Theory

List-II:

1. Observational learning and modeling

2. Stimulus-response association

3. Problem-solving and sudden insight

4. Reinforcement and punishment

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2

B. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

C. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3

D. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3

Answer: C

Explanations:

1. Classical Conditioning – 2. Stimulus-response association
   Classical conditioning involves learning through the association of a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus, leading to a conditioned response.

2. Operant Conditioning – 4. Reinforcement and punishment
   Operant conditioning is based on learning through consequences, where behaviors are strengthened or weakened by reinforcement or punishment.

3. Social Learning Theory – 1. Observational learning and modeling
   Social Learning Theory (proposed by Bandura) emphasizes learning through observing others’ behaviors and imitating them (modeling).

4. Cognitive Learning Theory – 3. Problem-solving and sudden insight
   Cognitive Learning Theory focuses on mental processes like problem-solving, reasoning, and learning through insight rather than just stimuli and reinforcement.

37. Match the following research methods with their definitions:

List-I:

(a) Experimental Method

(b) Correlational Method

(c) Case Study

(d) Survey Method

List-11:

1. In-depth analysis of a single individual or group

2. Determines the relationship between two variables

3. Involves manipulation of variables to determine cause-and-effect relationships

4. Gathering data from a large number of respondents through questionnaires

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1

C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

D. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4

Answer: D

• Experimental Method – 3. Involves manipulation of variables to determine cause-and-effect relationships
  The experimental method involves the manipulation of independent variables to observe their effect on dependent variables, establishing cause-and-effect relationships.

• Correlational Method – 2. Determines the relationship between two variables
  The correlational method identifies the degree of relationship between two variables but does not imply causation.

• Case Study – 1. In-depth analysis of a single individual or group
  A case study involves a detailed and in-depth examination of an individual or group to gain insights into behavior or phenomena.

• Survey Method – 4. Gathering data from a large number of respondents through questionnaires
  The survey method collects data from a wide population using questionnaires or interviews to gather responses.

38. Match List-I (Brain Structures) with List-II (Functions):

List-I:

(a) Hippocampus

(b) Amygdala

(c) Cerebellum

(d) Frontal Lobe

List-II:

1. Emotion and fear regulation

2. Balance and motor coordination

3. Memory formation

4. Decision making and problem solving

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4

B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4

C. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3

D. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2

Answer: A

• Hippocampus (a) – 3. Memory formation
  The hippocampus plays a key role in forming new memories and converting short-term memories into long-term memories.

• Amygdala (b) – 1. Emotion and fear regulation
  The amygdala is involved in processing emotions, particularly fear and threat detection.

• Cerebellum (c) – 2. Balance and motor coordination
  The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining balance, motor coordination, and fine motor skills.

• Frontal Lobe (d) – 4. Decision making and problem solving
  The frontal lobe is associated with higher cognitive functions like decision-making, reasoning, planning, and problem-solving.

39. Match the following types of memory with their characteristics:

List-I:

(a) Sensory Memory

(b) Short-Term Memory

(c) Long-Term Memory

(d) Procedural Memory

List-II:

1. Brief retention of sensory information

2. Memory for skills and actions

3. Limited capacity, temporary storage

4. Virtually unlimited storage, durable memory

Choose the answers from the options given below.

A. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4

B. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2

C. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-2

D. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2

Answer: B

• Sensory Memory (a) – 1. Brief retention of sensory information
  Sensory memory holds information from the senses for a very short duration, such as a few milliseconds.

• Short-Term Memory (b) – 3. Limited capacity, temporary storage
  Short-term memory has limited capacity (usually 7±2 items) and retains information for a short time without rehearsal.

• Long-Term Memory (c) – 4. Virtually unlimited storage, durable memory
  Long-term memory can store vast amounts of information for extended periods, and it is relatively permanent.

• Procedural Memory (d) – 2. Memory for skills and actions
  Procedural memory is a type of long-term memory responsible for remembering how to perform actions, skills, or habits (e.g., riding a bike).

40. Match List-I (Psychologists) with List-II (Contributions):

List-I:

(a) Sigmund Freud

(b) B.F. Skinner

(c) Jean Piaget

(d) Carl Rogers

List-II:

1. Psychosexual development

2. Operant conditioning

3. Cognitive development

4. Humanistic psychology

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

B. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

Answer: C

• Sigmund Freud (a) – 1. Psychosexual development
  Freud is known for his theory of psychosexual development, which proposes that early childhood experiences shape personality through stages like oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital stages.

• B.F. Skinner (b) – 2. Operant conditioning
  Skinner developed the concept of operant conditioning, emphasizing learning through reinforcement and punishment to shape behavior.

• Jean Piaget (c) – 3. Cognitive development
  Piaget proposed the stages of cognitive development (sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational) to describe how children’s thinking evolves over time.

• Carl Rogers (d) – 4. Humanistic psychology
  Rogers is a key figure in humanistic psychology, emphasizing concepts like self-actualization, the person-centered approach, and the importance of free will and personal growth.

41. Match List-1 (Psychological Disorders) with List-II (Symptoms):

List-I:

(a) Schizophrenia

(b) Bipolar Disorder

(c) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

(d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

List-II:

1. Extreme mood swings between mania and depression

2. Persistent anxiety and worry

3. Hallucinations and delusions

4. Repetitive behaviours and intrusive thoughts

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3

B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4

C. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2

Answer: D

• Schizophrenia (a) – 3. Hallucinations and delusions
  Schizophrenia is a severe mental disorder characterized by symptoms like hallucinations (false sensory experiences) and delusions (false beliefs).

• Bipolar Disorder (b) – 1. Extreme mood swings between mania and depression
  Bipolar disorder involves episodes of extreme highs (mania) and lows (depression) in mood, affecting daily functioning.

• Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) (c) – 4. Repetitive behaviours and intrusive thoughts
  OCD is marked by persistent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to reduce anxiety.

• Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) (d) – 2. Persistent anxiety and worry
  GAD is a psychological disorder characterized by chronic, uncontrollable worry and anxiety about multiple events or situations.

42. Match List-1 (Developmental Stages) with List-II (Developmental Milestones):

List-I:

(b) Early Childhood

(a) Infancy

(c) Adolescence

(d) Late Adulthood

List-II:

1. Developing a sense of identity

2. Forming basic trust vs. mistrust

3. Developing gross motor skills

4. Reflecting on life and accepting mortality

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1

B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4

C. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3

D. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-2

Answer: B

• Infancy (a) – 2. Forming basic trust vs. mistrust
  In the infancy stage, infants learn to trust their caregivers and environment. Erik Erikson’s theory identifies this stage as trust vs. mistrust.

• Early Childhood (b) – 3. Developing gross motor skills
  Early childhood is marked by the development of gross motor skills such as walking, running, and coordination.

• Adolescence (c) – 1. Developing a sense of identity
  During adolescence, individuals focus on developing a personal identity, exploring roles, values, and beliefs. Erikson referred to this as identity vs. role confusion.

• Late Adulthood (d) – 4. Reflecting on life and accepting mortality
  In late adulthood, individuals typically reflect on their life accomplishments and face the concept of mortality. Erikson’s stage for this is integrity vs. despair.

43. Match List-I (Theories of Emotion) with List-II (Key Concepts):

List-I:

(a) James-Lange Theory

(b) Cannon-Bard Theory

(c) Schachter-Singer Two-Factor Theory

(d) Cognitive Appraisal Theory

List-II:

1. Emotions arise from physiological arousal

2. Emotions and physiological responses occur simultaneously

3. Emotions are determined by physiological arousal and cognitive labeling

4. Emotions are determined by individual interpretation of situations

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1

C. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

D. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

Answer: A

• James-Lange Theory (a) – 1. Emotions arise from physiological arousal
  According to this theory, emotions are the result of interpreting physiological responses. For example, we feel afraid because our body reacts (e.g., heart rate increases).

• Cannon-Bard Theory (b) – 2. Emotions and physiological responses occur simultaneously
  This theory proposes that physiological responses and emotions occur simultaneously, not one leading to the other. For example, your body reacts and you feel fear at the same time.

• Schachter-Singer Two-Factor Theory (c) – 3. Emotions are determined by physiological arousal and cognitive labeling
  This theory suggests that emotions arise when physiological arousal is interpreted or labeled based on context. For example, if your heart is racing and you label the situation as dangerous, you feel fear.

• Cognitive Appraisal Theory (d) – 4. Emotions are determined by individual interpretation of situations
  According to this theory, emotions depend on a person’s cognitive evaluation of a situation. For instance, two people may react differently to the same situation depending on their interpretation.

44. Match List-I (Psychological Therapies) with List-II (Techniques):

List-I:

(a) Psychoanalysis

(b) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

(c) Humanistic Therapy

(d) Behavioural Therapy

List-II:

1. Unconditional positive regard

2. Systematic desensitization

3. Free association

4. Cognitive restructuring

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1

B. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4

C. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

Answer: D

• Psychoanalysis (a) – 3. Free association
  Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where patients are encouraged to verbalize their thoughts freely to uncover repressed emotions or conflicts.

• Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) (b) – 4. Cognitive restructuring
  Cognitive restructuring is a CBT technique used to challenge and change negative thought patterns to influence behavior and emotional responses.

• Humanistic Therapy (c) – 1. Unconditional positive regard
  This involves providing a non-judgmental, supportive, and accepting environment to foster personal growth and self-acceptance.

• Behavioural Therapy (d) – 2. Systematic desensitization
  Systematic desensitization is a behavioral therapy technique that uses gradual exposure to a feared stimulus while employing relaxation techniques to reduce anxiety responses.

45. Match List-1 (Types of Memory) with List-II (Examples):

List-I:

(a) Semantic Memory

(b) Episodic Memory

(c) Procedural Memory

(d) Working Memory

List-II:

1. Recalling how to ride a bicycle

2. Remembering the first day of school

3. Solving a math problem in your head.

4. Knowing that Paris is the capital of France

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1

B. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3

C. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4

Answer: C

• Semantic Memory (a) – 4. Knowing that Paris is the capital of France
  Semantic memory refers to general knowledge and facts that are not tied to personal experiences. Knowing facts like Paris is the capital of France is an example of semantic memory.

• Episodic Memory (b) – 2. Remembering the first day of school
  Episodic memory involves personal experiences and events. Remembering a specific event like your first day of school is an example of episodic memory.

• Procedural Memory (c) – 1. Recalling how to ride a bicycle
  Procedural memory involves remembering how to perform actions, skills, or tasks. Knowing how to ride a bicycle is a procedural memory because it is a motor skill.

• Working Memory (d) – 3. Solving a math problem in your head
  Working memory is used to hold and process information temporarily to perform cognitive tasks. Solving a math problem in your head relies on active manipulation of information, which is an example of working memory.

46. Match List-I (Personality Theories) with List-II (Concepts):

List-I:

(a) Trait Theory

(b) Psychoanalytic Theory

(c) Humanistic Theory

(d) Social Cognitive Theory

List-II:

1. Focus on conscious experiences and self- actualization

2. Behaviour influenced by unconscious motives

3. Traits as stable characteristics that influence behaviour

4. Learning through observation and imitation

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4

B. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-2

C. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4

D. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3

Answer: C

• Trait Theory (a) – 3. Traits as stable characteristics that influence behaviour
  Trait theory emphasizes the identification of personality traits, which are stable characteristics that influence an individual’s behavior consistently over time.

• Psychoanalytic Theory (b) – 2. Behaviour influenced by unconscious motives
  Freud’s psychoanalytic theory focuses on the role of unconscious motives and desires in influencing behavior.

• Humanistic Theory (c) – 1. Focus on conscious experiences and self-actualization
  Humanistic theory emphasizes personal growth, self-actualization, and the idea of free will, focusing on conscious experiences.

• Social Cognitive Theory (d) – 4. Learning through observation and imitation
  Social cognitive theory (developed by Albert Bandura) highlights the role of observational learning, imitation, and modeling in shaping behavior.

47. Match List-1 (Motivational Theories) with List-II (Key Proponents):

List-I:

(a) Drive Reduction Theory

(b) Hierarchy of Needs Theory

(c) Self-Determination Theory

(d) Expectancy Theory

List-II:

1. Abraham Maslow

2. Clark Hull

3. Edward Deci and Richard Ryan

4. Victor Vroom

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4

B. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-3

C. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4

D. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

Answer: A

• Drive Reduction Theory (a) – 2. Clark Hull
  Clark Hull proposed the Drive Reduction Theory, which suggests that motivation arises to reduce physiological drives such as hunger, thirst, or other states of tension.

• Hierarchy of Needs Theory (b) – 1. Abraham Maslow
  Abraham Maslow proposed the Hierarchy of Needs Theory, which organizes human needs into a pyramid, starting with basic physiological needs and progressing to self-actualization.

• Self-Determination Theory (c) – 3. Edward Deci and Richard Ryan
  Edward Deci and Richard Ryan developed the Self-Determination Theory, emphasizing intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and the psychological needs of autonomy, competence, and relatedness.

• Expectancy Theory (d) – 4. Victor Vroom
  Victor Vroom proposed the Expectancy Theory, which suggests that motivation is based on the expected outcomes of actions, focusing on the relationship between effort, performance, and reward.

48. Match List-1 (Branches of Psychology) with List-II (Key Areas of Focus):

List-I:

(a) Developmental Psychology

(b) Clinical Psychology

(c) Industrial-Organizational Psychology

(d) Social Psychology

List-II:

1. Diagnosing and treating mental illness

2. Studying age-related changes across the lifespan

3. Workplace behaviour and productivity

4. How individuals interact and influence each other

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4

B. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4

C. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2

Answer: B

• Developmental Psychology (a) – 2. Studying age-related changes across the lifespan
  Developmental psychology focuses on human growth and development from conception to old age, studying changes in physical, cognitive, emotional, and social aspects over time.

• Clinical Psychology (b) – 1. Diagnosing and treating mental illness
  Clinical psychology focuses on diagnosing, treating, and preventing mental health disorders, as well as providing therapy for emotional and psychological issues.

• Industrial-Organizational Psychology (c) – 3. Workplace behaviour and productivity
  Industrial-organizational psychology examines workplace behaviour, productivity, motivation, leadership, organizational culture, and employee satisfaction.

• Social Psychology (d) – 4. How individuals interact and influence each other
  Social psychology studies how individuals’ thoughts, feelings, and behaviours are influenced by social factors, including group dynamics, relationships, and social influence.

49. Match List-1 (Intelligence Theories) with List-II (Key Concepts):

List-I:

(a) Spearman’s g Factor Theory

(b) Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences Theory

(c) Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory

(d) Cattell-Horn-Carroll Theory

List-II:

1. General intelligence

2. Fluid and crystallized intelligence

3. Analytic, creative, and practical intelligence

4. Multiple distinct intelligences

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4

C. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1

D. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2

Answer: D

• Spearman’s g Factor Theory (a) – 1. General intelligence
  Spearman proposed the concept of a single general intelligence (g factor) that underlies specific cognitive abilities and is the foundation for overall mental ability.

• Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences Theory (b) – 4. Multiple distinct intelligences
  Gardner’s theory identifies multiple independent intelligences, such as linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, musical, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic intelligences.

• Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory (c) – 3. Analytic, creative, and practical intelligence
  Sternberg proposed three components of intelligence: analytical intelligence (problem-solving), creative intelligence (innovation), and practical intelligence (everyday adaptability).

• Cattell-Horn-Carroll Theory (d) – 2. Fluid and crystallized intelligence
  This theory distinguishes between fluid intelligence (problem-solving, reasoning in novel situations) and crystallized intelligence (knowledge gained through experience and education).

50. Match List-1 (Pioneers of Psychology) with List-II (Contributions):

List-I:

(a) Wilhelm Wundt

(b) William James

(c) John Watson

(d) Carl Jung

List-II:

1. Functionalism

2. Founder of modern psychology

3. Behaviourism

4. Analytical psychology

Choose the answers from the options given below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2

B. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4

C. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1

Answer: B

• Wilhelm Wundt (a) – 2. Founder of modern psychology
  Wundt is considered the father of modern psychology because he established the first psychological laboratory in 1879, marking psychology as an experimental science.

• William James (b) – 1. Functionalism
  William James is the founder of functionalism, a theory that focuses on how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environment.

• John Watson (c) – 3. Behaviourism
  Watson is the founder of behaviorism, emphasizing the study of observable behavior over mental processes and focusing on conditioning.

• Carl Jung (d) – 4. Analytical psychology
  Jung developed analytical psychology, introducing concepts like the collective unconscious, archetypes, and individuation.

Directions (Qs. 51-55): In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

A. If Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

B. If Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

C. If Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

D. If Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

51. Assertion (A): Classical conditioning involves learning through association.

Reason (R): In operant conditioning, behaviour is controlled by consequences

Answer: B

52. Assertion (A): Freud’s theory of personality includes the id, ego, and superego.

Reason (R): The id operates on the reality principle.

Answer: C

53. Assertion (A): Observational learning requires the presence of a model.

Reason (R): Operant conditioning is learning through observation and imitation.

Answer: C

54. Assertion (A): Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is a conflict between attitudes and behaviours.

Reason (R): Individuals tend to change their behaviour rather than their attitudes to reduce dissonance.

Answer: B

55. Assertion (A): The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body’s “rest and digest” responses.

Reason (R): The parasympathetic nervous system controls the “fight or flight” response.

Answer: D

Directions (Qs. 56-60): In the following questions, two statements are given. Consider both statements and choose the correct answer.

A. If Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

B. If Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

C. If Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

D. If Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

56. Statement I: Classical conditioning is a form of learning in which associations are made between a natural stimulus and a neutral stimulus.

Statement II: In classical conditioning, reinforcement strengthens the association between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus.

Answer: C

57. Statement I: Cognitive psychology focuses primarily on how people acquire, process, and store information.

Statement II: Behaviourism focuses on observable behaviours without concern for internal mental states.

Answer: A

58. Statement I: The hippocampus is primarily involved in emotional regulation and fear responses.

Statement II: The amygdala is involved in the formation of long-term memories.

Answer: B

59. Statement I: Classical conditioning involves learning through reinforcement and punishment.

Statement II: Operant conditioning involves learning through the association of a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus.

Answer: B

60. Statement I: Humanistic psychology emphasizes the potential for personal growth and free will.

Statement II: The psychoanalytic approach focuses primarily on observable behaviours and external stimuli.

Answer: C

CH2. METHODS IN PSYCHOLOGICAL RESEARCH

1. Which of the following is a fundamental assumption of experimental research?

A. All variables can be controlled

B. Results can be generalized to all populations

C. Cause-and-effect relationships can be established

D. Correlation equals causation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Experimental research involves manipulating one variable (independent variable) while controlling others to observe changes in a dependent variable. This allows researchers to determine cause-and-effect relationships by isolating variables and observing their direct impact. Experimental designs ensure that observed outcomes are due to intentional manipulation, not other factors.

2. Which of the following is an advantage of using a double-blind study?

A. It reduces researcher bias

B. It ensures participant reliability

C. It eliminates all potential confounding variables

D. It increases the placebo effect

Answer: A

Explanation:
In a double-blind study, neither the participants nor the researchers know who is in the control or experimental group. This design minimizes researcher bias and ensures that expectations or preconceptions do not influence the results. It strengthens the validity of the study by ensuring objectivity.

3. What is the main purpose of a control group in an experiment?

A. To receive the treatment being tested

B. To serve as a baseline comparison for the experimental group

C. To manipulate variables

D. To ensure all participants receive equal treatment

Answer: B

4. Which of the following is a common feature of naturalistic observation?

A. The researcher manipulates the environment

B. Participants know they are being observed

C. The researcher observes behaviour in a natural setting

D. It involves high levels of experimental control

Answer: C

Explanation:
In naturalistic observation, the researcher observes participants’ behaviour in their natural environment without manipulation or interference. This method provides authentic insights into behaviour as it occurs in real-life settings, enhancing ecological validity.

5. Which of the following research methods involves intensive examination of a single individual?

A. Survey

C. Longitudinal study

B. Case study

D. Cross-sectional study

Answer: B

Explanation:
A case study involves an intensive, in-depth examination of a single individual, group, event, or situation to gain detailed insights. It focuses on unique characteristics and experiences, providing comprehensive qualitative data.

6. Which type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized to other situations and individuals?

A. Internal validity

B. Construct validity

C. External validity

D. Criterion validity

Answer: C

Explanation:
External validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized to other situations, settings, populations, and times beyond the specific context of the study. It assesses the applicability of findings in real-world scenarios.

7. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a hypothesis?

A. It must be falsifiable

B. It must be proven true

C. It should include all possible variables

D. It is always derived from a theory

Answer: A

Explanation:
A hypothesis must be falsifiable, meaning it can be tested and proven wrong through evidence. This allows researchers to conduct experiments or observations to determine its validity. A hypothesis does not need to be proven true; it is meant to be tested.

8. Which of the following best describes a longitudinal study?

A. A study that examines different individuals at the same time

B. A study that tracks the same individuals over a long period of time

C. A study that compares groups based on different variables

D. A study that manipulates a variable in a laboratory setting

Answer: B

Explanation:
A longitudinal study involves observing and collecting data from the same group of individuals over an extended period of time. This method is used to study changes and developments in behavior, health, or other variables over time.

9. Which of the following sampling methods ensures that every individual in the population has an equal. chance of being selected?

A. Convenience sampling

B. Random sampling

C. Purposive sampling

D. Snowball sampling

Answer: B

Explanation:
Random sampling ensures that every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected. This method reduces bias and enhances the generalizability of the study results by providing each participant an equal opportunity to be included.

10. A researcher wants to examine the relationship between two variables, hours studied and exam scores. Which test is most appropriate?

A. Pearson correlation

B. Chi-square test

C. Independent sample t-test

D. Dependent sample t-test

Answer: A

Explanation: The Pearson correlation is used to examine the relationship between two continuous variables, such as hours studied and exam scores. It measures the strength and direction of the linear relationship between these variables, ranging from -1 to +1.

11. A researcher conducts an experiment to compare the effects of two teaching methods on students’ test scores. Which statistical test should be used to compare the means of two independent groups?

A. Chi-square test

B. Independent sample t-test

C. Dependent sample t-test

D. Pearson correlation

Answer: B

Explanation:
The independent sample t-test is used to compare the means of two independent groups to determine if there is a statistically significant difference between them. In this case, the two groups represent students exposed to two different teaching methods.

12. To test if the average reading score of a group of students changes after 6 weeks of intensive instruction, which test is most appropriate?

A. Chi-square test

B. Independent sample t-test

C. Dependent sample t-test

D. ANOVA

Answer: C

Explanation:
The dependent sample t-test (also known as a paired t-test) is used when comparing two related or paired sets of data (e.g., reading scores before and after the intervention for the same group of students). It assesses if there is a statistically significant change in the mean scores after the 6-week intensive instruction.

13. A participant in a study continually reports symptoms of anxiety and physical discomfort despite medical tests showing no physical illness. What condition might the participant suffer from?

A. Somatization disorder

B. Conversion disorder

C. Hypochondriasis

D. Generalized anxiety disorder

Answer: A

Explanation:
Somatization disorder is a psychological condition where a person reports physical symptoms (such as anxiety, pain, or discomfort) that have no identifiable medical cause. These symptoms are not feigned and are linked to psychological factors rather than a physical illness.

14. A participant constantly exaggerates minor physical symptoms, believing they indicate serious diseases. What condition does the participant likely have?

A. Dysmorphic disorder

B. Conversion disorder

C. Hypochondriasis

D. Somatization disorder

Answer: C

Explanation:
Hypochondriasis (now often referred to as illness anxiety disorder) is a psychological condition where a person exaggerates minor physical symptoms, interpreting them as signs of a serious illness, despite medical evidence showing otherwise. This leads to persistent worry about having a serious disease.

15. A participant in a study is highly preoccupied with their appearance and perceives flaws in their physical appearance that others do not see. What disorder does this describe?

A. Dysmorphic disorder

B. Hypochondriasis

C. Somatization disorder

D. Conversion disorder

Answer: A

Explanation:
Dysmorphic disorder, or body dysmorphic disorder, is a psychological condition where an individual is highly preoccupied with perceived flaws in their physical appearance that are minor or nonexistent to others. This leads to significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.

16. In an experimental design, the variable that is manipulated by the researcher is called the……..

A. Dependent variable

B. Independent variable

C. Control variable

D. Confounding variable

Answer: B

Explanation:
The independent variable is the variable that is manipulated by the researcher in an experiment to observe its effect on the dependent variable. It is the cause or factor being tested to determine its impact.

17. The measure of the degree to which two variables are related is called……..

A. Reliability

B. Correlation

C. Validity

D. Significance

Answer: B

Explanation:
Correlation is the statistical measure that indicates the degree to which two variables are related. It can be positive (both variables increase together), negative (one increases while the other decreases), or zero (no relationship). It does not imply causation.

18. A ………… is a factor that can vary in an experiment, such as age or intelligence.

A. Variable

B. Constant

C. Scale

D. Construct

Answer: A

Explanation:
A variable is any factor or condition that can change or vary in an experiment, such as age, intelligence, temperature, or time. Variables are measured, controlled, or manipulated to observe their effects in research studies.

19. A measure of how consistently a test produces the same results under the same conditions is called……..

A. Validity

C. Bias

B. Reliability

D. Error

Answer: B

• Reliability refers to the consistency of a test’s results when administered under the same conditions.
• A reliable test produces stable and repeatable outcomes over time.
• It is different from validity, which measures how well a test assesses what it is intended to measure.

20. A……….variable is one that influences both the independent and dependent variables, causing a spurious association.

A. Confounding

B. Extraneous

D. Independent

C. Dependent

Answer: A

• A confounding variable is one that affects both the independent variable (predictor) and the dependent variable (outcome).
• This creates a false impression of a direct association between the independent and dependent variables.
• Example: In a study linking exercise (independent) to heart disease (dependent), age might be a confounding variable as it influences both.

21. In psychological research, an operational definition is used to…….

A. Define variables in terms of how they are measured

B. Create a theory based on previous research

C. Ensure the experiment is ethical

D. Define the population sample

Answer: A

• An operational definition specifies how a variable is quantified or measured in a study.
• It ensures clarity and replicability in research.
• Example: Defining “stress” as a score on a specific stress scale.

22. A sample that accurately reflects the characteristics of the population as a whole is called a…….. sample.

A. Biased

B. Random

C. Representative

D. Convenient

Answer: C

• A representative sample reflects the characteristics of the population, ensuring findings can be generalized.
• It is selected to include key traits (e.g., age, gender, ethnicity) in the same proportions as the population.
• Example: A study on national voting patterns uses a sample that mirrors the demographic makeup of voters.

23. In research,……… the hypothesis states that there is no effect or relationship between variables.

A. Alternative

B. Directional

C. Null

D. Non-directional

Answer: C

• The null hypothesis posits that there is no effect, relationship, or difference between variables.
• It serves as the default assumption to be tested and potentially rejected in research.
• Example: “There is no difference in test scores between students who study in groups and those who study alone.”

24. A researcher divides a group of participants into two conditions using a coin flip. This is an example of

A. Stratified sampling

B. Systematic sampling

C. Random assignment

D. Convenience sampling

Answer: C

• Random assignment involves assigning participants to experimental conditions by chance, ensuring each participant has an equal likelihood of being placed in any group.
• This minimizes bias and increases the validity of causal inferences.
• Example: Using a coin flip to assign participants to either a treatment or control group.

25. In experimental research,…….. refers to the extent to which the results of the study can be attributed to the manipulations of the independent variable rather than confounding factors.

A. External validity

B. Construct validity

C. Internal validity

D. Ecological validity

Answer: C

• Internal validity measures whether the observed effects in a study are due to the manipulation of the independent variable and not other factors.
• It ensures the study’s results are reliable and free from confounding variables.
• Example: Controlling for participant characteristics to isolate the effect of a new teaching method on test scores.

26. Identify the characteristics of experimental research:

1. Manipulation of variables

2. Random assignment

3. Control over extraneous variables

4. Use of large samples

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

Answer: A

• Manipulation of variables: Independent variables are deliberately altered to observe effects.
• Random assignment: Participants are randomly placed in groups to minimize bias.
• Control over extraneous variables: Ensures confounding variables do not affect results.
• Use of large samples is not a defining characteristic but can enhance generalizability.

27. Which of the following are components of a good psychological experiment?

1. Operational definitions

2. Hypothesis testing

3. Random sampling

4. High generalizability

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 4

D. 2, 3, 4

Answer: A

• Operational definitions: Ensure clarity and replicability by defining variables precisely.
• Hypothesis testing: Forms the basis of experimental research by evaluating predictions.
• Random sampling: Helps ensure the sample represents the population, reducing selection bias.
• High generalizability is desirable but not essential for a good experiment; it depends on external validity.

28. Which of the following are characteristics of correlational studies?

1. Examines relationships between variables

2. Does not manipulate variables

3. Establishes cause-and-effect relationships

4. Often uses survey methods

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 4

D. 2, 3, 4

Answer: B

• Examines relationships between variables: Correlational studies assess how variables are related (positive, negative, or no correlation).
• Does not manipulate variables: Observes existing variables without intervention.
• Often uses survey methods: Surveys are a common tool for collecting data in correlational research.
• Does not establish cause-and-effect relationships: Correlation does not imply causation.

29. Which of the following are considered non- experimental research methods?

1. Naturalistic observation

2. Case studies

3. Correlational research

4. Randomized controlled trials

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 3, 4

B. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Non-experimental research methods involve observation or analysis without manipulating variables.
• Naturalistic observation: Observes subjects in their natural environment without intervention.
• Case studies: In-depth analysis of an individual or group without manipulation of variables.
• Correlational research: Examines relationships between variables but does not establish causation.

Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are experimental because they involve manipulation of variables and random assignment to groups.

30. Identify the key components of informed consent in psychological research:

1. Voluntary participation

2. Full disclosure of procedures

3. Ability to withdraw at any time

4. Provision of financial compensation

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

A. 1, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

• Voluntary participation (1): Ensures participants freely choose to participate without coercion, a fundamental ethical principle.
• Full disclosure of procedures (2): Participants must be fully informed about the nature, purpose, and potential risks of the research to make an informed decision.
• Ability to withdraw at any time (3): Participants retain the right to discontinue participation without penalty, maintaining autonomy.
• Provision of financial compensation (4): While sometimes offered, it is not a core requirement for informed consent in psychological research.

31. Arrange the following steps of the scientific method in the correct sequence:

1. Forming a hypothesis

2. Conducting an experiment

3. Analyzing data

4. Drawing conclusions

Choose the correct sequence from the options below:

A. 2, 1, 4, 3

B. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 1, 4, 2

D. 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: B

• Step 1: Forming a hypothesis (1) – Develop a testable prediction based on observations or existing knowledge.
• Step 2: Conducting an experiment (2) – Perform experiments to test the hypothesis under controlled conditions.
• Step 3: Analyzing data (3) – Evaluate the results of the experiment to identify patterns or trends.
• Step 4: Drawing conclusions (4) – Interpret the findings to determine whether they support or refute the hypothesis.

32. Arrange the following types of research designs in order from least to most control over variables:

1. Correlational study

2. Naturalistic observation

3. Laboratory experiment

4. Quasi-experiment

Choose the correct sequence from the options below:

A. 2, 4, 1, 3

B. 1, 3, 4, 2

C. 2, 1, 4, 3

D. 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: C

• 2. Naturalistic observation: Minimal control over variables as researchers observe behavior in its natural environment.
• 1. Correlational study: Moderate control; examines relationships between variables but does not manipulate them.
• 4. Quasi-experiment: Greater control as researchers manipulate some variables but lack random assignment.
• 3. Laboratory experiment: Most control, with strict manipulation of variables and random assignment to conditions.

33. Arrange the following types of sampling methods in order from most to least representative of the population:

1. Random sampling

2. Stratified sampling

3. Convenience sampling

4. Purposive sampling

Choose the correct sequence from the options below:

A. 4, 3, 1, 2

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 3, 2, 4, 1

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: D

• 1. Random sampling: Most representative; every individual in the population has an equal chance of selection.
• 2. Stratified sampling: Highly representative; ensures key subgroups are proportionally included.
• 3. Convenience sampling: Less representative; selects participants based on ease of access, which may introduce bias.
• 4. Purposive sampling: Least representative; targets specific individuals or groups based on the researcher’s judgment, increasing bias.

34. Arrange the following types of data in order from least to most precise:

1. Nominal

2. Ordinal

3. Interval

4. Ratio

Choose the correct sequence from the options below:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 3, 4, 1, 2

D. 4, 2, 1, 3

Answer: A

• 1. Nominal: Categorizes data without any order (e.g., gender, colors).
• 2. Ordinal: Adds order to categories but without equal intervals (e.g., rankings).
• 3. Interval: Includes ordered categories with equal intervals but no true zero (e.g., temperature in Celsius).
• 4. Ratio: Most precise, includes equal intervals and a true zero, allowing for meaningful ratios (e.g., weight, height).

35. Arrange the following steps in designing an experiment in the correct order:

1. Identifying the research problem

2. Developing a hypothesis

3. Collecting and analyzing data

4. Reporting the findings

Choose the correct sequence from the options below:

A. 2, 3, 1, 4

B. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 4, 2, 1

D. 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer: B

• 1. Identifying the research problem: The first step in designing an experiment is recognizing the issue or question to be studied.
• 2. Developing a hypothesis: Formulating a testable hypothesis based on the research problem.
• 3. Collecting and analyzing data: Conducting the experiment and gathering data to test the hypothesis.
• 4. Reporting the findings: Presenting the results, drawing conclusions, and communicating the outcomes.

36. Match List-I (Research Methods) with List-II (Key Characteristics):

List-I:

(a) Experimental research

(b) Correlational research

(c) Case study

(d) Naturalistic observation

List-II:

1. High internal validity

2. Examines relationships between variables

3. In-depth study of a single individual

4. Observation in natural environments

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

B. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

Answer: C

37. Match List-1 (Types of Validity) with List-II (Definitions):

List-I:

(a) Internal validity

(b) External validity

(c) Construct validity

(d) Criterion validity

List-II:

1. The extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure

2. The extent to which the results can be generalized

3. The degree to which the experimental design eliminates confounding variables

4. The ability to predict outcomes based on the test

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-2

B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1

C. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4

Answer: D

Explanation:

• (a) Internal validity: Refers to the degree to which the experimental design eliminates confounding variables, ensuring that the results are due to the manipulation of the independent variable, not other factors.

• (b) External validity: Refers to the extent to which the results can be generalized beyond the specific study, to other settings, populations, or times.

• (c) Construct validity: Refers to the extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure, ensuring that the test accurately assesses the theoretical construct.

• (d) Criterion validity: Refers to the ability to predict outcomes based on the test, often compared to an external criterion (like performance or behavior).

38. Match List-I (Ethical Considerations) with List-II (Key Concepts):

List-I:

(a) Informed consent

(b) Confidentiality

(c) Deception

(d) Right to withdraw

List-II:

1. Protecting the identity of participants

2. Providing participants with all necessary information

3. Allowing participants to leave the study at any time

4. Using misleading information to prevent bias

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

B. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

C. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

Answer: A

Explanation:

• (a) Informed consent: Refers to providing participants with all necessary information about the study so they can make an informed decision about their participation.

• (b) Confidentiality: Involves protecting the identity of participants, ensuring that their personal information is not disclosed without permission.

• (c) Deception: Refers to using misleading information to prevent bias or ensure the study’s validity without participants knowing the true purpose of the study.

• (d) Right to withdraw: Refers to allowing participants to leave the study at any time without penalty or negative consequences.

39. Match List-1 (Types of Experimental Designs) with List-II (Key Features):

List-I:

(a) Within-subjects design

(b) Between-subjects design

(c) Cross-sectional design

(d) Longitudinal design

List-II:

1. Comparing different groups at a single point in time

2. The same participants are tested under different conditions

3. Comparing groups of participants over a long period

4. Each participant experiences only one condition of the experiment

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1

B. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2

C. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4

Answer: C

Explanation:

• (a) Within-subjects design: In this design, the same participants are tested under different conditions. Each participant experiences all conditions of the experiment.

• (b) Between-subjects design: In this design, each participant experiences only one condition of the experiment, and different participants are assigned to different conditions.

• (c) Cross-sectional design: This design involves comparing different groups at a single point in time, often used to study differences between age groups or other cohorts.

• (d) Longitudinal design: In this design, groups of participants are compared over a long period, often to study changes or developments over time.

40. Match List-1 (Sampling Techniques) with List-II (Descriptions):

List-I:

(a) Stratified sampling

(b) Random sampling

(c) Convenience sampling

(d) Snowball sampling

List-II:

1. Participants are selected based on availability

2. Participants recruit others into the sample

3. The population is divided into subgroups and randomly sampled

4. Each member of the population has an equal chance of being selected

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

B. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

C. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1

D. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

Answer: B

Explanation:

• (a) Stratified sampling: The population is divided into subgroups (strata) based on certain characteristics, and then random samples are taken from each subgroup, ensuring representation from all subgroups.

• (b) Random sampling: Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected, ensuring a random selection from the entire population.

• (c) Convenience sampling: Participants are selected based on their availability and convenience to the researcher, making it a non-random sampling method.

• (d) Snowball sampling: In this technique, existing participants recruit others into the sample, often used in hard-to-reach populations or studies involving specific social networks.

41. Match List-1 (Measurement Scales) with List-II (Examples):

List-I:

(a) Nominal scale

(b) Ordinal scale

(c) Interval scale

(d) Ratio scale

List-II:

1. Ranking of students by grades

2. Temperature measured in Celsius

3. Height in centimeters

4. Types of psychological disorders

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1

B. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2

C. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4

D. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

Answer: D

Explanation:

• (a) Nominal scale: This scale involves categories with no inherent order. An example is types of psychological disorders, where categories like “anxiety,” “depression,” etc., are used without ranking.

• (b) Ordinal scale: This scale involves order or ranking, but the differences between ranks are not uniform. An example is ranking of students by grades, where students are ranked, but the difference between ranks (like between 1st and 2nd) is not necessarily consistent.

• (c) Interval scale: This scale has ordered categories with equal intervals, but no true zero. An example is temperature measured in Celsius, where the intervals between temperatures are consistent, but zero does not mean “no temperature.”

• (d) Ratio scale: This scale has all the properties of an interval scale, plus a true zero point. An example is height in centimeters, where both differences between measurements and a true zero (no height) are meaningful.

42. Match List-1 (Threats to Validity) with List-II (Descriptions):

List-I:

(a) History effect

(b) Maturation effect

(c) Testing effect

(d) Instrumentation effect

List-II:

1. Changes in participants due to the passage of time

2. Changes in the measuring instrument over time

3. External events that occur during the course of a study

4. Participants’ improved performance due to repeated testing

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2

B. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1

C. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3

D. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4

Answer: A

Explanation:

• (a) History effect: This refers to external events that occur during the course of a study, which may impact the participants and their responses, such as a societal event or change in environment.

• (b) Maturation effect: This effect is related to changes in participants due to the passage of time, like physical or psychological changes that occur naturally during the course of the study.

• (c) Testing effect: This effect occurs when participants’ performance improves due to repeated testing or practice, as they become familiar with the test format or procedure.

• (d) Instrumentation effect: This refers to changes in the measuring instrument over time, such as a shift in how data is collected or a change in the tools or equipment used for measurement.

43. Match List-I (Data Collection Methods) with List-II (Descriptions):

List-I:

(a) Survey method

(b) Interview method

(c) Observation method

(d) Experimental method

List-II:

1. Directly asking participants structured questions

2. Systematically recording behaviour in a natural setting

3. Manipulating variables to determine cause and effect

4. Using questionnaires to gather data from a large sample

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4

B. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2

C. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

D. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1

Answer: C

Explanation:

• (a) Survey method: This involves using questionnaires to gather data from a large sample, typically asking standardized questions to collect a broad range of responses.

• (b) Interview method: Involves directly asking participants structured or unstructured questions, often in a one-on-one setting, to gather detailed personal information.

• (c) Observation method: This method involves systematically recording behavior in a natural setting, typically without interfering with the participants, to understand how they act in their usual environment.

• (d) Experimental method: In this method, researchers manipulate variables to determine cause and effect relationships by controlling conditions and measuring outcomes.

44. Match List-I (Research Approaches) with List-II (Descriptions):

List-I:

(a) Qualitative research

(b) Quantitative research

(c) Mixed-methods research

(d) Action research

List-II:

1. Research that involves numerical data and statistical analysis

2. Research that integrates both qualitative and quantitative methods

3. Research aimed at solving a practical problem

4. Research involving non-numerical data, such as interviews and observations

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2

B. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

C. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4

D. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1

Answer: B

Explanation:

• (a) Qualitative research: This type of research involves non-numerical data, such as interviews, observations, and textual analysis, aiming to understand experiences, perceptions, and meanings.

• (b) Quantitative research: This approach focuses on numerical data and statistical analysis, aiming to quantify variables and look for patterns or relationships through statistical methods.

• (c) Mixed-methods research: This approach integrates both qualitative and quantitative methods, combining the strengths of both to provide a fuller understanding of the research problem.

• (d) Action research: This type of research is aimed at solving a practical problem through direct collaboration with stakeholders and is often used in fields like education, social work, and healthcare.

45. Match List-1 (Ethical Guidelines) with List-II (Principles):

List-I:

(a) Beneficence

(b) Justice

(c) Autonomy

(d) Fidelity

List-II:

1. Treating participants fairly and equally

2. Ensuring participants are not harmed

3. Maintaining honesty and trustworthiness in research

4. Respecting participants’ rights to make informed decisions

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1

B. (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4

C. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

Answer: C

Explanation:

• (a) Beneficence: This principle involves ensuring participants are not harmed and maximizing potential benefits, ensuring that research causes no harm and benefits the participants or society.

• (b) Justice: This principle focuses on treating participants fairly and equally, ensuring that the benefits and burdens of research are distributed equally among all participants.

• (c) Autonomy: This principle emphasizes respecting participants’ rights to make informed decisions about their participation in research, ensuring they have all necessary information to decide freely.

• (d) Fidelity: This principle involves maintaining honesty and trustworthiness in research, ensuring that the researcher is trustworthy and maintains integrity throughout the research process.

46. Match List-1 (Data Analysis Methods) with List-II (Descriptions):

List-I:

(a) Descriptive statistics

(b) Inferential statistics

(c) Thematic analysis

(d) Content analysis

List-II:

1. Drawing conclusions about a population based on sample data

2. Summarizing and describing characteristics of a data set

3. Identifying patterns and themes in qualitative data

4. Analyzing written or visual material for patterns

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-3

B. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4

C. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

Answer: B

Explanation:

• (a) Descriptive statistics: This involves summarizing and describing the characteristics of a data set, such as calculating averages, percentages, or standard deviations to present data in a manageable form.

• (b) Inferential statistics: This involves drawing conclusions about a population based on sample data, using statistical tests to make inferences or predictions.

• (c) Thematic analysis: This qualitative method focuses on identifying patterns and themes in qualitative data, often used in analyzing interviews or open-ended survey responses.

• (d) Content analysis: This involves analyzing written or visual material for patterns, such as counting occurrences of certain words or analyzing media content for themes or trends.

47. Match List-I (Biases in Research) with List-II (Descriptions):

List-I:

(a) Experimenter bias

(b) Sampling bias

(c) Response bias

(d) Observer bias

List-II:

1. Favoring certain participants or groups during selection

2. Participants providing socially desirable answers

3. Researcher expectations influencing the outcomes

4. Observer’s knowledge of the hypothesis influencing observations

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4

B. (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2

C. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

D. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4

Answer: A

Explanation:

• (a) Experimenter bias: This occurs when researcher expectations influence the outcomes of the study, such as when the researcher unintentionally alters the way they interact with participants or interpret data based on their expectations.

• (b) Sampling bias: This happens when there is favoring certain participants or groups during selection, which leads to a non-representative sample and can affect the generalizability of the findings.

• (c) Response bias: This occurs when participants provide socially desirable answers, which may not reflect their true feelings or behaviors, often due to pressure to conform to social norms.

• (d) Observer bias: This happens when the observer’s knowledge of the hypothesis influences their observations, potentially leading them to see what they expect to see rather than objectively recording data.

48. Match List-1 (Types of Research Studies) with List-II (Examples):

List-I:

(a) Longitudinal study

(b) Cross-sectional study

(c) Case study

(d) Experimental study

List-II:

1. Studying a group of people over a long period

2. Comparing different age groups at one point in time

3. In-depth analysis of an individual or small group

4. Manipulating variables to determine cause and effect

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4

B. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

C. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1

D. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

Answer: D

Explanation:

• (a) Longitudinal study: This type of study involves studying a group of people over a long period to observe changes or developments over time, such as tracking health outcomes or educational progress.

• (b) Cross-sectional study: In this study, different age groups are compared at one point in time to examine differences between groups, often used in studies involving demographics or social behavior.

• (c) Case study: This involves an in-depth analysis of an individual or small group, typically used in clinical psychology or medicine to understand unique cases in great detail.

• (d) Experimental study: This type of research involves manipulating variables to determine cause and effect, often through controlled experiments to test hypotheses and understand causal relationships.

49. Match List-I (Types of Errors) with List-II (Descriptions):

List-I:

(a) Type 1 error

(b) Type II error

(c) Sampling error

(d) Measurement error

List-II:

1. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

2. Failing to detect a real effect or difference

3. Differences between the sample and the population

4. Inaccuracy in collecting or recording data

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

B. (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

C. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2

D. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3

Answer: A

Explanation:

• (a) Type 1 error: This occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, meaning a false positive result is found, suggesting an effect or difference that does not actually exist.

• (b) Type II error: This occurs when there is a failure to detect a real effect or difference, meaning a false negative result where a real effect exists but is not recognized.

• (c) Sampling error: This refers to the differences between the sample and the population, which can occur because the sample is not perfectly representative of the population.

• (d) Measurement error: This involves inaccuracy in collecting or recording data, leading to errors in the data that can affect the results of the study.

50. Match List-1 (Data Types) with List-II (Examples):

List-I:

(a) Continuous data

(b) Categorical data

(c) Ordinal data

(d) Interval data

List-II:

1. Blood pressure readings

2. Favorite color

3. Ranking job applicants from best to worst

4. Temperature in Celsius

Choose the correct matching from the options below:

A. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

B. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

C. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

D. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1

Answer: B

Explanation:

• (a) Continuous data: This type of data can take any value within a given range and is measured on a continuous scale. Blood pressure readings are an example, as they can have many possible values, including decimals.

• (b) Categorical data: This data consists of categories with no specific order. Favorite color is an example, as it involves distinct categories like red, blue, etc., without any inherent ranking.

• (c) Ordinal data: This type of data involves ordered categories, where the values have a meaningful order but the intervals between them are not necessarily equal. Ranking job applicants from best to worst is an example, as it represents an ordered sequence.

• (d) Interval data: This type of data has ordered categories with equal intervals between them, but no true zero. Temperature in Celsius is an example, as the difference between temperatures is consistent, but zero degrees does not represent a complete absence of temperature.

Directions (Qs. 51-55): In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

A. If Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

B. If Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

C. If Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

D. If Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

51. Assertion (A): Experimental research allows researchers to establish cause-and-effect relationships.

Reason (R): Experimental research involves manipulating variables and controlling for extraneous factors.

Answer: A

52. Assertion (A): Surveys are an effective method for studying large populations.

Reason (R): Surveys allow researchers to collect detailed and in-depth qualitative data from participants.

Answer: C

53. Assertion (A): A high correlation between two variables indicates a cause-and-effect relationship.

Reason (R): Correlational studies are designed to identify relationships but cannot confirm causality.

Answer: D

54. Assertion (A): Random sampling ensures that the sample is representative of the population.

Reason (R): Random sampling gives every individual in the population an equal chance of being selected.

Answer: A

55. Assertion (A): Confounding variables must be controlled to ensure internal validity in an experiment.

Reason (R): Confounding variables create an alternative explanation for the results of an experiment.

Answer: A

Directions (Qs. 56-60): In the following questions, two statements are given. Consider both statements and choose the correct answer.

A. If Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

B. If Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

C. If Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

D. If Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

56. Statement I: If the length of a psychological test is increased, it improves reliability but not validity.

Statement II: A longer test reduces measurement error, leading to more consistent results.

Answer: A

57. Statement I: A quasi-experiment lacks random assignment to conditions.

Statement II: Quasi-experiments cannot establish cause-and-effect relationships as clearly as true experiments.

Answer: A

58. Statement I: Internal validity is concerned with whether the manipulation of the independent variable causes the changes in the dependent variable.

Statement II: External validity refers to the genera- lizability of the findings beyond the specific study.

Answer: A

59. Statement I: A null hypothesis predicts that there is no effect or relationship between variables in an experiment.

Statement II: The alternative hypothesis predicts a specific direction or relationship between variables.

Answer: A

60. Statement I: Content analysis is used to analyze and interpret qualitative data such as text and media.

Statement II: Thematic analysis is used to quantify patterns in numerical data.

Answer: C